I may be openning a can of worms, But isn't that what discussion boards are for?
Anyway I was reading the North Carolina state Constitution that was written in 1789. In it it states:


9. That all persons possessed of a freehold, in any town in this State, having a right of representation, and also all freemen, who have been inhabitants of any such town twelve months next before, and at the day of election, and shall have paid public taxes, shall be entitled to vote for a member to represent such town in the house of commons: provided, always, that this section shall not entitle any inhabitant of such town to vote for members of the house of commons for the county in which he may reside: nor any freeholder in such county, who resides without or beyond the limits of such town, to vote for a member of the said town.

Now as I said this is the state Constitution written in 1789 there is no mention of free blacks just free men and blacks during that time were either called slaves or freemen. Now we look at the amendments of 1835 around the time the abolitionist movement became more militant we have a change in in the word usage

1835
2. All free men of the age of twenty-one years (except as is hereinafter declared), who have been inhabitants of any one district within the State twelve months immediately preceding the day of any election, and possessed of a freehold within the same dis trict of fifty acres of land, for six months next before and at the day of election, shall be entitled to vote for a member of the senate.

3. No free Negro, free mulatto, or free person of mixed blood, descended from Negro ancestors to the fourth generation inclusive (though one ancestor of each generation may have been a white person) shall vote for members of the senate or house of commons.

Any thought's and please be nice when you comment.